Крок 1 · Фармація, промислова фармація 2020 · Англійська

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01

What titrimetric method of analysis requires the use of both external and internal indicators?

A Permanganatometry
B Nitritometry
C Alkalimetry
D Complexometric titration
E Argentometry
02

A solution contains calcium, barium, aluminium, potassium, and sodium cations. Into this solution a small amount of ammonium hydroxide and alizarin solution was added, which resulted in production of red precipitate. What ion was detected as the result of this reaction?

A Aluminium
B Sodium
C Potassium
D Calcium
E Barium
03

Select an indicator for argentometric determination of chloride ions using the Mohr method:

A Methyl red
B Diphenylcarbazone
C Eosin
D Fluorescein
E Potassium chromate
04

Quantitative determination of copper salts by means of photometric titration should be conducted according to the calibration graph that is built within the following coordinates:

A Optical density - concentration
B Optical density - liquid layer thickness
C Optical density - wavelength
D Optical density - temperature
E Light absorption intensity - wavelength
05

2M solution of HCl was added into the solution being studied, which resulted in formation of white precipitate that turned black when processed with ammonia solution. What cation is present in this solution?

A Ba2+
B Ag+
C Mg2+
D Pb2+
E Hg2+
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06

What should be measured during quantitative determination of glucose by means of polarimetry?

A Optical density of the solution
B Refractive index
C Light beam dispersion in the solution
D Absorption coefficient of a polarized light beam in the solution
E Rotation angle of a polarized light beam
07

Concentration of ethyl alcohol in tinctures and some other dosage forms can be determined by means of refractometry. For this purpose the following should be measured:

A Solution refractive index
B Light beam incidence angle
C Rotation angle of a light polarization plane
D Light beam refraction angle
E Angle of total internal reflection of a light beam
08

Ammonium thiocyanate solution was added into the solution being studied. The resulting solution colored red. This analytical effect indicates the presence of the following cation:

A Silver
B Mercury(I)
C Iron(III)
D Lead(II)
E Mercury(II)
09

What reference electrode should be used for potentiometric determination in a solution that contains ammonia and sodium hydroxide?

A Zinc
B Silver chloride
C Platinum
D Silver
E Glass
10

When barium chloride solution was added into the solution being studied, it resulted in a white precipitate that was acidand alkali-insoluble, which indicates that this solution contains:

A Chloride ions
B Iron(II) ions
C Nitrate ions
D Permanganate ions
E Sulfate ions
11

What laboratory glassware is used in titrimetric methods of analysis to measure out a precise volume of a titrant?

A Measuring glass
B Pipette
C Volumetric flask
D Measuring cylinder
E Burette
12

Quantitative content of oxalic acid can be determined by means of permanganatometry. How to determine the equivalence point for this kind of titration?

A With adsorption indicator
B With pH indicator
C When titrate changes its color after another drop of working solution is added
D With redox indicator diphenylamine
E With specific indicator
13

Specify what method of redox titration requires the use of specific indicator - starch - to fix the end point:

A Iodometry
B Permanganatometry
C Bromatometry
D Nitritometry
E Cerimetry
14

To separate cations of the 6th analytical group from cations of the 5th analytical group (acid-base classification), the following is used:

A Excess sodium hydroxide solution
B Silver nitrate solution
C Acetic acid solution
D Excess sulfuric acid solution
E Excess ammonia solution
15

To determine mass-volume fraction of ammonia in a solution, the following solution should be used:

A Iodine
B Potassium permanganate
C Sodium hydroxide
D Sulfuric acid
E Hydrochloric acid
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16

Pharmacopoeia reaction to determine benzoate ions requires interaction with the solution of:

A Potassium chloride
B Acetic anhydride
C Diphenylamine
D Iron(III) chloride
E Resorcin
17

What reference electrode can be used in potentiometric analysis of a medicinal substance?

A Silver chloride
B Zinc
C Quinhydrone
D Glass
E Antimony
18

Why is there no group reagent for the cations of the 1st analytical group (acid-base cassification)?

A They have close ionic radii
B They belong to biologically important elements
C They can form soluble bases
D They have large ionic radii
E Most of their salts are water-soluble
19

What working solutions (titrants) are used in Volhard method (precipitation titration)?

A KMnO4 and KBrO3
B Na2S2O3 and K[I3]
C H2SO4 and NaOH
D HClO4 and KOH
E AgNO3 and NH4SCN
20

The third analitycal group of cations (acid-base classification) includes Ca2+, Sr2+, Ba2+. What acid can function as a precipitator agent (group reagent) for these cations?

A HCIO4
B HCI
C HNO3
D CH3COOH
E H2SO4
21

Reaction of sodium ions with potassium hexahydroxoantimonate(V) in neutral medium produces precipitate. Specify the color of this precipitate:

A White
B Blue
C Yellow
D Red
E Green
22

Salts and esters of oxalic acid are called:

A Malonates
B Adipates
C Urates
D Succinates
E Oxalates
23

What test is used for identification of uric acid and other compounds with purine nucleus?

A Lucas reagent
B Murexide reaction
C Silver mirror reaction
D Copper mirror reaction
E Fehling reagent
24

Select the compound with both pyrrole and pyridine nitrogen atoms from those given below:

A Theophylline
B Pyridazine
C Pyrimidine
D Pteridine
E 2-Aminopyridine
25

What reagent allows distinguishing between maltose (a reducing disaccharide) and sucrose (a non-reducing disaccharide)?

A Br2
B FeCl3
C K4[Fe(CN6)]
D Tollens reagent
E NaOH
26

Specify the name of the alkene given below according to the IUPAC substitutive nomenclature:

A 2-Ethyl-4-methyl-3-pentene
B 4-Ethyl-2-methyl-2-pentene
C 2,4-Dimethyl-2-hexene
D 4-Ethyl-2-methyl-3-pentene
E 3,5-Dimethyl-4-hexene
27

Cellulose hydrolysis produces the following disaccharide:

A Cellobiose
B Lactose
C Glucose
D Sucrose
E Maltose
28

Transformation C2H4 (alkene) −→ C2H6 (alkane) occurs during the following reaction:

A Hydrogenation
B Dimerization
C Dehydration
D Dehydrogenation
E Hydration
29

What type of bonds participates in creation of both linear and cyclic carboxylic acid associates in the form of dimers?

A Donor-acceptor bonds
B Hydrogen bonds
C Ionic bonds
D Polar covalent bonds
E Nonpolar covalent bonds
30

The end-productof heating bromoethane with aqueous solution of potassium hydroxide is:?

A Ethanoic acid
B Ethene
C Ethanol
D Ethane
E Diethyl ether
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31

Name the product of starch hydrolysis:

A Fructose
B Galactose
C Ribose
D Mannose
E Glucose
32

Which of the listed monosaccharides is a ketose?

A Mannose
B Fructose
C Glucose
D Galactose
E Ribose
33

Dibazol (Bendazol) is a hypotensive antispasmodic drug. Its mechanism of action is based on its ability to block phosphodiesterase type 4 enzyme activity. This drug contains the following heterocyclic compound:

A Pyrimidine
B Benzene
C Pyridine
D Thiazole
E Benzimidazole
34

What compound is synthesized by means of beta-picoline oxidation?

A Nicotinic acid
B Barbituric acid
C Uric acid
D Ascorbic acid
E Benzoic acid
35

What value determines the degree of influence that foreign ions have on the potential of an ion-selective electrode?

A Selectivity coefficient
B Electrical conductivity coefficient
C Osmotic coefficient
D Diffusion coefficient
E Activity coefficient
36

Name the process of spontaneous adhesion of drops in an emulsion to each other:

A Coagulation
B Flocculation
C Coalescence
D Flotation
E Sedimentation
37

Enzymes are widely used as drugs in pharmacy. What is the main difference that separates enzymes from non-biological catalysts?

A High specificity and selectivity
B High homogeneity
C High dispersion
D Low universality
E High universality
38

Name the structural unit of a colloidal solution of a medicinal substance:

A Atom
B Molecule
C Zwitterion
D Ion
E Micelle
39

Surfactants and high-molecular compounds are added into concentrated emulsions to stabilize them. These substances are:

A Catalysts
B Absorbents
C Solvents
D Emulsifiers
E Activators
40

Specify the order of acetone breakdown reaction:
CH3COCH3 = C2H4 + H2 + CO

A First
B Zero
C Second
D Fractional
E Third
41

What two methods of obtaining a disperse system can be characterized as physical condensation?

A Vapour condensation and solvent substitution
B Ultrafiltration and peptization
C Ultrafiltration and vapour condensation
D Dispergation and peptization
E Chemical condensation and peptization
42

If in the process of molecular adsorption the solute is being adsorbed more than the solvent, then the following occurs:

A Positive adsorption
B No adsorption
C Negative adsorption
D Selective adsorption
E Ion adsorption
43

What device is used to measure surface tension of a liquid?

A Nephelometer
B Areometer
C Stalagmometer
D Viscometer
E Calorimeter
44

Sedimentation is characteristic of the following systems:

A Electrolyte solutions
B Nonelectrolyte solutions
C Foams
D Solutions of high-molecular compounds
E Suspensions
45

Under certain conditions, solutions of high-molecular substances can lose their flowability, meaning that the bonds begin to form between macromolecules, leading to the formation of a spatial grid. Name this process:

A Coagulation
B Coacervation
C Condensation
D Peptization
E Gel formation
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46

Collagen, gelatin, keratin, and myosin are the proteins that are formed with peptide bonds and resemble long threads in shape. Name this type of proteins:

A Structured proteins
B -
C Globular proteins
D Fibrillar proteins
E Chain proteins
47

Name the ability of high-molecular compounds to prevent precipitation of lyophobic sols and deposition of cholesterol plaques on the vessel walls:

A Thixotropy
B Coacervation
C Sedimentation
D Coagulation
E Colloid protection
48

Saline solution with 0.9% of NaCl in relation to blood serum can be characterized as:

A Isotonic
B Colloidal
C Hypotonic
D Hypertonic
E -
49

Helmholtz energy is a direction criterion of a spontaneous process at a constant:

A Entropy and pressure
B Temperature and volume
C Temperature and pressure
D Internal energy and volume
E Entropy and volume
50

Name the process of removing one or several substances from a complex system by means of a selective solvent:

A Condensation
B Evaporation
C Extraction
D Crystallization
E Dispersion
51

In medical and pharmaceutical practice the phenomena of adsorption, wetting, and adhesion are regularly observed. Name this group of phenomena:

A Surface phenomena
B Optical phenomena
C Molecular-kinetic phenomena
D Electrokinetic phenomena
E Physico-chemical phenomena
52

I.I.Mechnikov, when studying inflammatory process, described a certain order that is characteristic of leukocyte migration to the inflammation focus. The cells emigrate to the focus in the following order:

A Monocytes, lymphocytes, neutrophilic granulocytes
B Neutrophilic granulocytes, monocytes, lymphocytes
C Lymphocytes, monocytes, neutrophilic granulocytes
D Monocytes, neutrophilic granulocytes, lymphocytes
E Neutrophilic granulocytes, lymphocytes, monocytes
53

A patient has developed anuria. Blood pressure is 50/20 mm Hg. What process of uropoiesis caused acute decrease of urination?

A Obligatory reabsorption
B Tubular secretion
C -
D Facultative reabsorption
E Glomerular filtration
54

During lancing an abscess in the oral cavity, it produces a yellow-green discharge. What cells are always present and predominant in the purulent exudate?

A Erythrocytes
B Eosinophils
C Neutrophils
D Basophils
E Lymphocytes
55

People, who were in the building during a fire, suffer from carbon monoxide poisoning. What type of hypoxia can be observed in this case?

A Hemic
B Hypoxic
C Circulatory
D Tissue
E Respiratory
56

A 42-year-old patient presents with skin pallor, weakness, and enlarged lymph nodes. In peripheral blood: leukocytosis, no intermediate forms of leukocytes
(”leukemic hiatus”), accelerated ESR. What disease can be suspected in this case?

A Chronic leukemia
B Leukemoid reaction
C Neutrophilic leukocytosis
D Acute leukemia
E Erythromyelosis
57

To reproduce Ehrlich carcinoma in a rabbit, a certain amount of benzpyrene (a polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbon) was daily applied to a dehaired patch of skin of the animal. What method is used for tumor modelling in this case?

A Explantation
B Induction
C Hormone administration
D Ionizing radiation
E Transplantation
58

After a surgery the patient presented with a severe pain syndrome. What change in the patient’s hormonal status is most likely in this case?

A Increased catecholamine production
B Decreased ACTH production
C Decreased production of mineralocorticoids
D Decreased production of glucocorticoids
E Insulin hypersecretion
59

A 9-year-old child due to acute bronchitis developed elevated body temperature up to 38.5oC that lasted for a week and was then followed by a drop in the temperature down to 37.0oC. What mechanism is leading at the 3rd stage of fever?

A Increased heat production
B Increased respiration rate
C Increased diuresis
D Development of chills
E Peripheral vasodilation
60

One hour after a child took polyvitamins in the dosage form of a syrup, the child developed a markedly itching urticaria-type rash all over the body. What type of allergic response can be characterized by this sign?

A Immune complex
B Anaphylactic
C Delayed-type hypersensitivity
D Cytotoxic
E Autoallergic
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61

A patient develops prolonged hemorrhages and hemorrhages into the muscles and joints as a result of any microtraumas. In the blood there is a deficiency of the VIII plasma factor of blood coagulation. What disease of blood system is observed in this patient?

A Vaquez disease (polycythemia vera)
B Hemophilia A
C Thrombocytopenic purpura
D Iron-deficiency anemia
E B12 and folate deficiency anemia
62

A man received a radiation dose of 30 Gy. He presents with necrotic angina, disorders of the gastrointestinal tract. Blood tests revealed anemia, leukopenia and thrombocytopenia. What stage of acute radiation sickness is observed in the patient?

A Manifest illness stage
B -
C Recovery
D Prodromal stage
E Latent stage
63

A 54-year-old man requested a pharmacist’s advice on drug prescription. The patient has 4-year-long history of chronic glomerulonephritis and 2-year-long history of persistent hypertension. What substance synthesized in the kidneys has important role in development of arterial hypertension?

A Nitric oxide
B Renin
C Histamine
D Catecholamines
E Aldosterone
64

Examination of a 45-year-old man, who for a long time kept to a vegetarian plantbased diet, revealed him to have negative nitrogen balance. What peculiarity of his diet has caused such developments?

A Excessive carbohydrate content
B Insufficient vitamin content
C Insufficient fat content
D Excessive water content
E Insufficient protein content
65

A 23-year-old man came to the infectious diseases department with complaints of abdominal distension and diarrhea. He was diagnosed with lambliasis. What type of leukocytosis is characteristic of this disease?

A Lymphocytic
B Monocytic
C Neutrophilic
D Basophilic
E Eosinophilic
66

What is the mechanism of indirect action of ionizing radiation on cells?

A Chromosome rupture
B Swelling of organelles
C Formation of large amount of free radicals
D Damage to the cytoplasmic membrane
E Activation of protein biosynthesis
67

A couple came to the genetic consultation for their newborn child to be examined. Karyotype test detects an additional chromosome in the 21 pair. What diagnosis can be made?

A Down syndrome
B Edwards syndrome
C Turner syndrome
D Patau syndrome
E Klinefelter syndrome
68

After a physical exertion a person develops extra (premature) cardiac contractions. What type of arrhythmia is it?

A Extrasystole
B Ventricular fibrillation
C Paroxysmal tachycardia
D Sinus bradycardia
E Sinus tachycardia
69

A 55-year-old man came to a doctor with complaints of acute pain in his big toes. Meat and wine are always present in his diet. The doctor suspects gout. What substance must be measured in the patient’s blood to confirm this diagnosis?

A Uric acid
B Lactate
C Urea
D Ketone bodies
E Bilirubin
70

suffers from diarrhea, dermatitis, and dementia. What vitamin is likely to be deficient in this patient, causing the patient’s condition?

A Retinol
B Tocopherol
C Nicotinic acid
D Vitamin D
E Vitamin K
71

An unconscious patient was brought into the intensive care unit. Acetone breath, acute hyperglycemia, and ketonemia are detected. What complication of diabetes mellitus occurred in this case?

A Hypoglycemic coma
B Diabetic coma
C Nephritis
D Acute acetone poisoning
E Cataract
72

Serum total protein is one of metabolic indicators. What reaction is usually used in clinical laboratories to measure this value?

A Fohl
B Biuret
C Ninhydrin
D Xanthoproteic
E Nitroprusside
73

Thyroid gland produces a hormone that regulates Ca2+ levels in blood, which facilitates mineralization of bone tissue. What hormone has such an effect?

A Triiodothyronine
B Dopamine
C Adrenaline
D Thyrocalcitonin
E Thyroxin
74

A patient is diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. For diagnostic purpose it is necessary to measure the activity of the following enzyme in the patient’s blood:

A Aldolase
B Creatine kinase
C LDH
D Pepsin
E Amylase
75

What enzyme allows for synthesis of various genes from template-RNA to DNA in genetic engineering (this enzyme catalyzes the process discovered in RNAviruses)?

A Exonuclease
B Helicase
C Endonuclease
D Reverse transcriptase
E DNA-ligase
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76

Primary structure of nucleic acids is a polynucleotide chain that has a certain composition and order of the nucleotides. What bonds stabilize this structure?

A Amide
B Peptide
C Disulfide
D Glycosidic
E -phosphodiester
77

Gout develops when purine nucleotide metabolism is disturbed. A doctor prescribed the patient allopurinol that is a competitive inhibitor of:

A Hexokinase
B Xanthine oxidase
C Alcohol dehydrogenase
D Lactate dehydrogenase
E Succinate dehydrogenase
78

Cocarboxylase is used in medicine as a pharmaceutical preparation for treatment of myocardial dystrophy and conditions that affect muscles and peripheral CNS. What vitamin is a component of this preparation?

A B12
B B6
C B1
D B2
E C
79

A patient complains of polyuria. Urine test detects no pathologic components, but urine specific gravity is abnormally low. What hormone secretion is likely to be disturbed in this patient?

A Thyrotropin
B Insulin
C Cortisol
D Somatotropin
E Vasopressin
80

A patient with hyperproduction of thyroid hormones has been prescribed Merkazolilum. This drug inhibits the following enzyme participating in iodothyronine synthesis:

A Aminotransferase
B Decarboxylase
C Reductase
D Aromatase
E Iodide peroxidase
81

Ascorutin vitamin preparation is used for treatment of bleeding gums and punctate hemorrhages. What vitamin does this preparation contain?
Бiологiчнахiмiя

A K
B A
C D
D E
E C
82

A man developed high plasma iron levels due to intensified hemolysis of erythrocytes. What plasma protein transports iron?

A Albumin
B Histone
C Interferon
D Ceruloplasmin
E Transferrin
83

In case of hypovitaminosis of a certain vitamin, disturbed proliferation of epithelial and connective tissue can be observed. Patients with this type of hypovitaminosis usually present with impaired vision and spatial orientation. Name this vitamin:

A Riboflavin
B Retinol
C Cholecalciferol
D Pyridoxine
E Tocopherol
84

Antihistamines are used in treatment of allergic responses, because histamine functions as an allergic response mediator. Name the amino acid from which histamine is produced:

A Alanine
B Histidine
C Tyrosine
D Glycine
E Asparagine
85

Cholesterol synthesis inhibitors are used as antiatherosclerotic drugs. Select one such drug from the list:

A Pancreatin
B Chloramphenicol
C Sulfanilamide
D Lovastatin
E Benzylpenicillin
86

Aspartame is used as a sweetener and in treatment of diabetes mellitus. What amino acid does it contain?

A Aspartic acid
B Valine
C Glutamic acid
D Methionine
E Leucine
87

Hemoglobin break-up begins in the cells of reticuloendothelial system. What enzyme catalyzes the reduction reaction of biliverdine into bilirubin?

A Xanthine oxidase
B Beta-glucuronidase
C Heme oxygenase
D Biliverdine reductase
E Hexokinase
88

grow in moderately humid conditions belong to the following ecological group:

A Hydrophytes
B Hygrophytes
C Mesophytes
D Xerophytes
E Succulents
89

Among the trees of Fabaceae family there is an early-flowering melliferous plant with pinnately compound leaves, spine-shaped stipules, and white fragrant flowers arranged in hanging racemes. Name this plant:

A Aronia melanocarpa
B Robinia pseudoacacia
C Armeniaca vulgaris
D Aesculus hippocastanum
E Quercus robur
90

Select a Brassicaceae family plant that contains glycosides similar in action to those obtained from foxglove:

A Arctostaphylos uva-ursi
B Erysimum canescens
C Polygonum aviculare
D Urtica dioica
E Primula officinalis
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91

Among harvested plants there was Capsella bursa-pastoris, which can be characterized as follows:

A Biennial plant, basal leaves - membranous, fruit - small winged heart-shaped silique
B Annual plant, basal leaves - compound, fruit - segmented silique
C Perennial plant, basal leaves - entire-kind, fruit - cylindric silique
D Biennial plant, basal leaves - pinnatilobate, fruit - small round silique
E Annual plant, basal leaves - pinnatisected or pinnatipartite, fruit - small triangular heart-shaped silique
92

Berberis vulgaris has spines that are modifications of:

A Leaves
B Rachises
C Stems
D Petioles
E Stipules
93

In monocotyledonous plants metabolism end-products are often represented by multiple needle crystals of calcium oxalate arranged in clusters. Name these structures:

A Raphides
B Twinned crystals
C Crystalline sand
D Styloids
E Druses
94

Name the male gametophyte of flowering plants:

A Embryo sac
B Nucellus
C Carpel
D Ovule
E Pollen grains
95

A gastric tea contains small oval brown lignified cone-shaped plant parts up to 1.5 cm in length that can be identified as:

A Platycladus orientalis cones
B Aggregate fruits of alnus
C Berry-like juniper cones
D Cypress cones
E Larch cones
96

A diagnostic feature important for correct identification of pine species is the number of needles on the short shoots (brachyblasts). Pinus sylvestris has the following number of needles on its short shoots:

A 2
B 8
C 5
D Many
E 3
97

In pharmaceutical manufacturing, rutin and quercetin are obtained from the flowers of a certain Fabaceae family plant. Name this plant:

A Caragana arborescens
B Acacia dealbata
C Styphnolobium japonicum
D Astragalus piletocladus
E Robinia pseudoacacia
98

A cough tea contains comminuted roots of a plant. The roots are colored bright yellow and taste sweet. They were identified as roots of the following plant:

A Glycyrrhiza glabra
B Valeriana officinalis
C Acorus calamus
D Sanguisorba officinalis
E Althaea officinalis
99

Nuciform fruits include a certain type of one-seeded fruit that does not burst when ripe. Its base is enclosed in a cup-shaped cupule formed by the broad part of the peduncle to which the flower was attached. Name this type of fruit:

A Nut
B Caryopsis
C Samara
D Acorn
E Nutlet
100

Plantago major inflorescence grows at the apex, its rachis is long, with sessile flowers. Name this type of inflorescence:

A Panicle
B Spike
C Capitulum
D Spadix
E Thyrse
101

Upon examination of a flower it is determined to have one pistil made up of single free carpel. Therefore, this gynoecium can be identified as:

A Paracarpous
B Syncarpous
C Lysicarpous
D Monocarpous
E Apocarpous
102

One of the important diagnostic features of garden sage and motherwort is their shape of corolla. Their flowers have the following type of corolla:

A Pseudoligulate
B Ligulate
C Bilabiate
D Thimble-shaped
E Funnelform
103

Rhizome of an Asteraceae family species is polycephalous, succulent, has lysigenous cavities, accumulates inulin. Such underground organ is characterisic of:

A Digitalis grandiflora
B Inula helenium
C Sorbus aucuparia
D Helianthus annuus
E Hyoscyamus niger
104

To obtain bacterial exotoxins, microorganisms are cultivated in a liquid nutrient medum, into which the toxins are being discharged. What method allows clearing the medium of microorganisms, so that only pure exotoxins will remain in the medium?

A Boiling
B Filtration through bacterial filters
C Autoclaving
D Application of disinfectants (Chloramine)
E Ultraviolet irradiation
105

In the course of bacteriological examination of the feces of a patient with diarrhea, a pure culture of slightly curved bacilli was obtained. In the microslide these microorganisms were arranged in clusters resembling schools of fish. Cultivation in the alkaline medium (alkaline peptone water) in six hours resulted in formation of a bluetinged film. These features are characteristic of the following causative agent:

A Spirochetes
B Salmonellae
C Vibrio cholerae
D Mycobacteria
E Colibacilli
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106

One day after eating meatballs in the school canteen, several students came to the nurse’s office complaining of stomachache, vomiting, high body temperature, and diarrhea. One of the students was hospitalized in a severe condition. What microorganisms can be the cause of this food toxicoinfection?

A Salmonellae
B Meningococci
C Shigellae
D Clostridiae
E Streptococci
107

For tetanus prevention a certain toxin is used. For 4 weeks this toxin is being neutralized with formaldehyde (0.4%) under the temperature of 39oC. Name the resulting preparation:

A Antitoxic serum
B Anatoxin
C Inactivated vaccine
D Adjuvant
E Immunoglobulin
108

After examination the patient was diagnosed with tick-borne encephalitis. What route of transmission is characteristic of this disease?

A Parenteral transmission
B Vertical transmission
C Airborne droplet transmission
D Vector-borne transmission
E Fecal-oral transmission
109

A chemotherapeutic agent has bactericidal effect against streptococci, staphylococci, bacilli, and clostridia. According to its action spectrum this drug belongs to the following group:

A Broad spectrum antibacterial agents
B Antiviral agents
C Broad spectrum antifungal agents
D Antituberculous agents
E Narrow spectrum antibacterial agents
110

It is known, that HIV infection leads to severe immunologic disturbances in the body that result in the development of AIDS (acquired immune deficiency syndrome). What cells of the human body are the most susceptible to HIV infection?

A Hepatocytes
B Suppressor T cells
C T helper cells
D Endotheliocytes
E B lymphocytes
111

Microbe survival within environment is facilitated by spore formation. What genus of microorganisms can be characterized as spore formers:

A Peptococcus
B Bacteroides
C Staphylococcus
D Peptostreptococcus
E Clostridium
112

To induce an artificially acquired active immunity, a three-month-oldchild was given orally a Sabin strain-based live cultural vaccine. This vaccine is used for prevention of:

A Tuberculosis
B Measles
C Rubella
D Poliomyelitis
E Parotitis
113

After examination the child was diagnosed with scarlet fever. What microorganism is a causative agent of this disease?

A Actinomycete
B Klebsiella
C Streptococcus
D Staphylococcus
E Meningococcus
114

A ready-made drug was inoculated on Sabouraud’s agar and incubated under 22oC for 5 days. This nutrient medium was used to determine the following:

A Total number of bacteria
B Presence of Salmonella
C Presence of E. coli
D Number of mold and yeast fungi
E Presence of S. aureus
115

Seitz filters are widely used in laboratory practice. What is their purpose?

A Disinfection of solutions
B Measurement of water contamination
C Virus destruction
D Growing of bacteriophages
E Sterilization by means of filtration
116

Thermolabile medicinal preparation for extemporal use was heated to 65oC thrice with intervals of one day between the heatings. What method of sterilization was used in this case?

A Calcination
B Filtration
C Tyndallization
D Koch’s steam sterilization
E Pasteurization
117

Many serological reactions require strictly aseptic conditions. What method of sterilization is optimal for decontamination of laboratory glassware?

A Filtration
B Tyndallization
C Dry heat
D Calcination
E Pasteurization
118

During microscopy of a smear made from the sputum sample and stained according to the Ziehl-Neelsen technique, the medical laboratory scientist detected bright red acid-fast bacilli arranged separately and in groups. What microorganisms were detected?

A Salmonella typhi
B Bacillus anthracis
C Micobacterium tuberculosis
D Bordetella pertussis
E Staphylococcus aureus
119

Sanitary-microbiological assessment of water quality in the water supply system conducted by the sanitary-epidemiological station detected microorganisms indicative of fecal contamination of water. What microorganisms were detected?

A Streptococcus agalactiae
B Neisseria sicca
C Haemophilus influenzae
D Staphylococcus aureus
E Escherichia coli
120

Air contamination with pathological microorganisms can be anticipated by the presence of indicator bacteria. Specify the bacteria that indicate immediate epidemiologic danger:

A Yeast fungi
B Hemolytic streptococci
C Micrococci
D Sarcinae
E Mold fungi
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121

It can be safely assumed that the infants born from the mothers with the history of measles will not be affected by the measles outbreak during their stay in the maternity ward. What classes of antibodies provide the infants with the resistance to this disease?

A IgD
B IgA
C IgG
D IgM
E IgE
122

During a surgery, tubocurarin chloride was used as a muscle relaxant. What antagonist should the patient be given to restore spontaneous breathing?

A Cytitone (Cytisine)
B Dithylin (Suxamethonium)
C Aethimizole (Methylamide)
D Proserin (Neostigmine)
E Benzohexonium (Hexamethonium)
123

A patient, who has been taking phenazepam for a month, came to the pharmacy. He insists that he needs to buy two more packages of this drug, because without it he feels unwell. The side-effect of this drug that can be observed in this patient is based on the development of:

A Cumulation
B Idiosyncrasy
C After-effect
D Tolerance
E Addiction
124

Select the halogenated antiseptic that would be preferable for a child to pack in the first aid kit, when going to a summer camp:

A Methylene blue
B Copper sulfate
C Iodine alcoholic solution
D Formaldehyde solution
E Brilliant green
125

A medical student needs to choose an adrenergic drug for treatment of anaphylactic shock. What would you recommend?

A Adrenaline hydrochloride
B Clophelin (Clonidine)
C Fenoterol
D Izadrin (Isoprenaline)
E Galazolin (Xylometazoline)
126

What is the main mechanism of benzylpenicillin bactericidal action on the coccal flora?

A Disturbed cytoplasmic membrane permeability
B Increased phagocytic activity of leukocytes
C Activation of macroorganism immune system
D Disturbed synthesis of microbial cell wall
E Inhibition of protein synthesis
127

What drug can quickly stop an angina pectoris attack, when taken sublingually?

A Digoxin
B Nitroglycerine
C Amiodarone
D Corglycon
E Lisinopril
128

Name the ability of a drug to accumulate within the patient’s body:

A Habituation
B Synergism
C Cumulation
D Antagonism
E Allergy
129

You work in the pharmacy located at the premises of the dermatovenerologic clinic. Consult an intern what antibiotic is a drug of choice for treatment of syphilis:

A Lincomycin hydrochloride
B Benzylpenicillin sodium salt
C Polymyxin M sulfate
D Streptomycin sulfate
E Levorin sodium salt
130

A doctor has prescribed a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug to relieve inflammation and pain syndrome. Name this drug:

A Glibenclamide
B Diclofenac sodium
C Prednisolone
D Loratadine
E Calcium chloride
131

What is the most common side-effect of inhaled corticosteroids?

A Osteoporosis
B Increased body mass
C Arterial hypertension
D Subcapsular cataract
E Oropharyngeal candidiasis
132

Treatment with sodium bromide resulted in development of bromism in the patient: rhinitis, cough, conjunctivitis, and skin rashes. What should the patient be prescribed to treat this condition?

A Sodium iodide
B Sodium sulfate
C Calcium chloride
D Sodium chloride
E Potassium chloride
133

A patient with allergic rhinitis was prescribed loratadine. This drug belongs to the following group of antiallergic agents:

A H2-antagonists
B Membrane stabilizers
C Leukotriene receptor antagonists
D Glucocorticoids
E H1-antagonists
134

A patient suffers from intense cough with production of viscous sputum. What drug can thin the sputum and facilitate expectoration?

A Butamirate
B Prenoxdiazine
C Glaucine
D Acetylcysteine
E Codeine phosphate
135

A patient with myocardial infarction was receiving heparin as a part of the complex therapy. With time the patient developed hematuria. What drug should be given as an antidote in this case?

A Aminocaproic acid
B Vicasol (Menadione)
C Fibrinogen
D Protamine sulfate
E Neodicumarin
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136

A patient with tracheitis was prescribed a centrally acting antitussive drug that does not depress respiration, causes no addiction, and lowers blood pressure. Name this drug:

A Morphine hydrochloride
B Prenoxdiazine
C Acetylcysteine
D Glaucine hydrochloride
E Codeine phosphate
137

What drug is used for treatment of organophosphate poisoning?

A Metronidazole
B Aciclovir
C Izoniazid
D Platyphylline
E Atropine sulfate
138

Select the drug with anti-herpesvirus activity that can be used for prevention and treatment of herpetic lesions on skin and mucosa:

A Nystatin
B Aciclovir
C Atropine
D Ranitidine
E Rifampicin
139

Forced diuresis needs to be induced in a patient with acute medication poisoning. What drug must be used for this purpose?

A Diphenhydramine
B Strophantin
C Bisacodil
D Furosemide
E Progesterone
140

Caffeine is one of the alkaloids contained in tea and coffee. Caffeine is contraindicated in case of:

A Depression of nervous activity
B Fatigue
C Migraine
D Hypotension
E Essential hypertension
141

To quickly relieve the state of acute psychosis, the patient was prescribed a rapid/short-acting psychotropic drug. Name this drug:

A Amitriptyline
B Caffeine and sodium benzoate
C Valerian extract
D Droperidol
E Piracetam
142

After ishemic stroke the patient was prescribed a drug to improve his intellectual functioning and memory. What drug should he obtain from the pharmacy?

A -
B Metoclopramide
C Piracetam
D Diphenin (Phenytoin)
E Tabex (Cytisine)